Morning Moments

"Receive holy spirit" or "Receive the Holy Spirit"?


Today I wish to examine a text that has given me a little trouble through the years, but not only me, but also many commentators and Bible scholars.  The text is found in John 20:22 -


John 20:22 (KJV)
²² And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:




It is also so translated in other versions, but my question is, "What does the text REALLY say"?  Did those disciples, in the absence of Thomas, but along with them if we compare the text with Luke 24:33+ in context.

Did they receive The Holy Spirit here, then the Gift of the Father (The Holy Spirit) at Pentecost, and then get Filled with the Spirit too?  Surely there must be a legitimate answer because Scripture does not conflict nor contradict Scripture.

When Jesus spoke of The Holy Spirit (with the definite article), He had said earlier, "whom you know for He is WITH you, but shall be IN you."  I have thoroughly researched this and could not find a suitable answer until I came to this:

"breathed on" - Greek is emphusao and it is ONLY used here in the New Testament.  However, it is used in the Septuagint, which is the Greek translation of the Hebrew/Aramaic text, in Gen 2:7 and means to "blow with force".  The same Lord, who as Jehovah Elohim, breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life so that he became a living soul, here breathes UPON either the 10 apostles (without Thomas) or upon all that were there according to Luke 24:33+ that they may receive Divine power.  NOW, the question remains then, "Was this a prophetic utterance" of what was to come at Pentecost or an initial COMING IN of The Holy Spirit?  The text says "He breathed UPON them".

The use of the term holy spirit without the article is used 52 times in the New Testament, and is always wrongly rendered "the Holy Spirit" (with the definite article, and capital letters).  Consequently there is no stronger rendering available when there are two articles present in the Greek (to pneuma to hagion), which means the Spirit the Holy [Spirit].  Hence the English reader can never tell which of the two very different Greek expressions he is reading.

Pneuma hagion (without the article) is never used of the Giver (the Holy Spirit), but only and always of His gift.  What this gift is may be seen by comparing Acts 1:4,5 with Luke 24:49, where "the promise of the Father" is called (in the former passage) pneuma hagion, and in the latter is called "power from on high".  This "power from on high" includes whatever gifts the Holy Spirit may bestow "according to His own will".  What particular gift is meant is sometimes stated, e.g. "faith", "power", etc.

This will be found to be the case in every one of the 52 occurrences.

The point I am making is that the text in John 20:22 involves the imparting of a gift from or upon, and not the gift of and into.  Honestly that is the only interpretation that is consistent with all of Scripture regarding the matter.

BLESSINGS!